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Topic: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Replies: 6   Last Post: Nov 20, 2013 12:09 PM

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fom

Posts: 1,968
Registered: 12/4/12
Re: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Posted: Nov 20, 2013 12:09 PM
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On 11/20/2013 6:28 AM, Peter Percival wrote:
> William Elliot wrote:
>

>> How can it be stronger? They're both equivalent.
>
> I know even less about English than I know about maths, but it seems to
> me that
>
> They're both equivalent.
>
> is ungrammatical. I think it should be
>
> They're equivalent to each other.
>
> or
>
> They're both equivalent to <some third thing>.
>
> I wouldn't mention it were it not for the fact that William Elliot is
> wont to make adverse comments about the English of others.
>
> (Better sprinkle a few smilies :-) :-) :-).)
>


Apparently, the smiles did not help.

:-)





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