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Topic: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Replies: 9   Last Post: Nov 22, 2013 6:12 AM

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fom

Posts: 1,968
Registered: 12/4/12
Re: Why don't texts give a stronger version of Zorn's lemma?
Posted: Nov 20, 2013 12:24 PM
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On 11/20/2013 11:06 AM, Peter Percival wrote:
> James Waldby wrote:
>> On Wed, 20 Nov 2013 12:28:17 +0000, Peter Percival wrote:
>>> William Elliot wrote:
>>>> How can it be stronger? They're both equivalent.
>>>
>>> I know even less about English than I know about maths, but it seems to
>>> me that

>>
>>> They're both equivalent.
>>
>>> is ungrammatical. I think it should be
>>
>>> They're equivalent to each other.
>>
>>> or
>>
>>> They're both equivalent to <some third thing>.
>>
>> No, "They're both equivalent" isn't ungrammatical. Some may see it as
>> slightly awkward or pleonastic but I think most native speakers will,
>> without remark, take it as meaning "They're equivalent" (which is what
>> I'd
>> have written if it were so). In appropriate context, "They're
>> equivalent"
>> has the same meaning but is less verbose than "They're equivalent to each
>> other".

>
> I'm happy with 'they're equivalent'; it's 'they're *both* equivalent'
> that reads oddly to me. (But I may be mad.)
>


What would grammarians call such a structure? A dangling relatum?

No. It is the relation itself that is dangling.

Dang relations!

chuckle





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