Virgil
Posts:
9,012
Registered:
1/6/11


Re: 1.39  What exactly is the Mean value Theorem?
Posted:
Jun 19, 2014 3:59 AM


In article <929be574b8814442ad67e741fb1823de@googlegroups.com>, John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote:
> In mainstream mythmatics, the MVT is ignorantly defined as follows: > > If f is a differentiable function on (a,b), then there is at least one point > c, such that a secant line with endpoints (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)) is parallel > to the tangent line at c. > > But the converse of this is NOT true in mainstream calculus: > > If f is a differentiable function on (a,b), and a tangent line exists at c, > then a parallel secant line exists with endpoints (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)). > > However, the MVT works regardless of the converse being true. The reason for > this, is that ignorant baboons (that would be you) do not know its real > meaning. In the New Calculus, the MVT is defined properly: In JG's improper NC, nothing is defined properly for proper calculus. 

