
Re: 1.39  What exactly is the Mean value Theorem?
Posted:
Jun 19, 2014 6:01 AM


On Thursday, June 19, 2014 9:59:48 AM UTC+2, Virgil wrote: > In article <929be574b8814442ad67e741fb1823de@googlegroups.com>, > > John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote: > > > > > In mainstream mythmatics, the MVT is ignorantly defined as follows: > > > > > > If f is a differentiable function on (a,b), then there is at least one point > > > c, such that a secant line with endpoints (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)) is parallel > > > to the tangent line at c. > > > > > > But the converse of this is NOT true in mainstream calculus: > > > > > > If f is a differentiable function on (a,b), and a tangent line exists at c, > > > then a parallel secant line exists with endpoints (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)). > > > > > > However, the MVT works regardless of the converse being true. The reason for > > > this, is that ignorant baboons (that would be you) do not know its real > > > meaning. In the New Calculus, the MVT is defined properly: > > > > In JG's improper NC, nothing is defined properly for proper calculus. > > 
I am only responding to save your comment so that others can know for certain you are a troll and a spammer.

