
Re: 1.39  What exactly is the Mean value Theorem?
Posted:
Jun 19, 2014 2:10 PM


On Thursday, June 19, 2014 6:55:55 PM UTC+2, Dirk Van de moortel wrote: > John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote: > > > On Thursday, 19 June 2014 16:20:50 UTC+2, Dirk Van de moortel wrote: > > >> John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote: > > >> > > >>> How about you practise what you preach? Just because you understood > > >>> this part does not mean you know everything now! You are wrong about > > >>> so many things which you have failed to understand. > > >> > > >> Take the function f(x) = 1/x. > > >> See if you can prove continuity at x=1 with *your* equivalence: > > >> For all epsilon > 0, Exist delta > 0, > > >> such that for all x: > > >> x1 < delta <==> 1/x1 < epsilon > > >> Take epsilon = 2. > > >> Give me that delta,and I'll give you an x that does > > >> NOT satisfy the equivalence. > > > > > > Sure you are on the right thread? I think we are discussing the MVT > > > here. > > > > > > Suggest you post your question on another thread. I played epsilonics > > > with you before. It's boring. > > > > Here or nowhere, coward.
You will not have it your way. I have already given you an applet (https://www.filesanywhere.com/fs/v.aspx?v=8b6d668e5e5e74baa867) addressing this very topic. It was designed for you.
If you want to debate the topic, post your question or comment at my FB (http://facebook.com/thenewcalculus) link and I will debate it with you.

