Date: Dec 9, 2012 10:41 PM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: Cantor's first proof in DETAILS
In article

<72919023-5457-4eca-8d7c-31e93d64036d@r10g2000pbd.googlegroups.com>,

"Ross A. Finlayson" <ross.finlayson@gmail.com> wrote:

> "There's no gap in this Heaviside step with connecting H(0+) and H(0-)

> with a simple line segment.

Since the H jumps from 0 to 1 at x = 0, tha segeemnt must have endpoints

(0,0) and (0,1),

The fiction being claimed to be continuous, for what x does the function

take the value 1/2?

> There is no point in it such that, not in

> the function, it is the only point in all neighborhoods of any [1] two

> points in the function, not in the function (not even a point

> discontinuity). Here "in the function" is each (x,y) in the combined

> coordinate image or co-range, with the function defined by the points

> in it.

I do not find enough sense in that to be worth its refutation.

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