Date: Jan 30, 2013 4:05 AM
Author: William Hughes
Subject: Re: Matheology § 203
On Jan 30, 9:57 am, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> On 30 Jan., 09:40, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

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> > On Jan 30, 9:28 am, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

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> > > On 30 Jan., 00:16, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> > > > On Jan 29, 10:11 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

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> > > > > On 29 Jan., 21:28, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> > > > <snip>

>

> > > > > > It does, however, imply that d in not one

> > > > > > of the lines of the list L

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> > > > > For that sake you must check all lines. Can you check what is not

> > > > > existing?

>

> > > > So now your claim is

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> > > > We can know

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> > > > There does not exist a natural number n

> > > > such that d is equal to the nth line

> > > > of L

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> > > > but we cannot know

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> > > > d is not one of the lines of L

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> > > You are trying hard to misunderstand!

>

> > Do you agree

>

> > i. There does not exist a natural number n

> > such that d is equal to the nth line

> > of L

>

> > and

>

> > ii. d is one of the lines of L

>

> > are mutually exclusive?-

>

> In existing finite sets this is true. In actually infinite sets it is

> not true,

Does

ii. d is one of the lines of L

imply

iii. there is a natural number n such that

d is equal to the nth line of L

?