```Date: Feb 1, 2013 12:14 PM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 203

On 1 Feb., 17:29, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:> On Feb 1, 4:34 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:>> > I just gave an example. Do you agree?>> But you did not answer the question> The example is discussed in another subthread.> I have slightly modified the questionSorry, if you don't tell me whether I am on the right track, I cannotbe sure to correctly answer your question.>> Accoding to WM>> A potentially infinite list, L,> of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences> can have the property that every> (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")> potentially infinite 0/1 sequence> is a line of LThat is obvious. The list *has* the property that all its lines areall its lines>> Let a potentially infinite list, L,> of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences> have the property that every> (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")> potentially infinite 0/1 sequence> is a line of LEvery line (from 1 to n) of L is a line of L. I cannot see why youask.>> Let s be a potentially infinite> 0/1 sequence.>> Does this imply that s is> a line of  LOf course not. s may be another line than those contained in L.Regards, WM
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