Date: Feb 1, 2013 12:14 PM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 203

On 1 Feb., 17:29, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Feb 1, 4:34 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
>

> > I just gave an example. Do you agree?
>
> But you did not answer the question
> The example is discussed in another subthread.
> I have slightly modified the question


Sorry, if you don't tell me whether I am on the right track, I cannot
be sure to correctly answer your question.
>
> Accoding to WM
>
> A potentially infinite list, L,
> of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences
> can have the property that every
> (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")
> potentially infinite 0/1 sequence
> is a line of L


That is obvious. The list *has* the property that all its lines are
all its lines

>
> Let a potentially infinite list, L,
> of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences
> have the property that every
> (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")
> potentially infinite 0/1 sequence
> is a line of L


Every line (from 1 to n) of L is a line of L. I cannot see why you
ask.
>
> Let s be a potentially infinite
> 0/1 sequence.
>
> Does this imply that s is
> a line of  L


Of course not. s may be another line than those contained in L.

Regards, WM