Date: Feb 1, 2013 12:14 PM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 203
On 1 Feb., 17:29, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

> On Feb 1, 4:34 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

>

> > I just gave an example. Do you agree?

>

> But you did not answer the question

> The example is discussed in another subthread.

> I have slightly modified the question

Sorry, if you don't tell me whether I am on the right track, I cannot

be sure to correctly answer your question.

>

> Accoding to WM

>

> A potentially infinite list, L,

> of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences

> can have the property that every

> (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")

> potentially infinite 0/1 sequence

> is a line of L

That is obvious. The list *has* the property that all its lines are

all its lines

>

> Let a potentially infinite list, L,

> of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences

> have the property that every

> (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")

> potentially infinite 0/1 sequence

> is a line of L

Every line (from 1 to n) of L is a line of L. I cannot see why you

ask.

>

> Let s be a potentially infinite

> 0/1 sequence.

>

> Does this imply that s is

> a line of L

Of course not. s may be another line than those contained in L.

Regards, WM