Date: Feb 1, 2013 8:37 PM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: Matheology � 203
In article

<efaf7bd4-daa1-43ea-b5aa-9e098c672cf8@d11g2000yqe.googlegroups.com>,

WM <mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> On 1 Feb., 17:29, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

> > On Feb 1, 4:34 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> >

> > > I just gave an example. Do you agree?

> >

> > But you did not answer the question

> > The example is discussed in another subthread.

> > I have slightly modified the question

>

> Sorry, if you don't tell me whether I am on the right track, I cannot

> be sure to correctly answer your question.

As a general rule, WM. you may assume that you are always on the wrong

track.

That assumption will be valid far more often than not.

> >

> > Accoding to WM

> >

> > A potentially infinite list, L,

> > of potentially infinite 0/1 sequences

> > can have the property that every

> > (in the sense of "all from 1 to n")

> > potentially infinite 0/1 sequence

> > is a line of L

How does one tell, for a merely "potentially infinite" sequence, whether

it matches another merely "potentially infinite" sequence, since there

cannot be, for such not actually infinite sequences any way to show

matching al infinitely many positions unless already one has every

position.

Thus two given but only only potentially infinite sequences may be

provably different, but cannot ever be provably the same, because proof

of sameness requires the actual infiniteness of the number of agreements.

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