Date: Feb 7, 2013 4:50 AM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: Matheology � 222 Back to the roots
In article

<1eda30e3-8f9e-4a55-ae3a-89368e363b90@z4g2000vbz.googlegroups.com>,

WM <mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> On 7 Feb., 10:11, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

> > On Feb 7, 10:05 am, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> >

> > > On 7 Feb., 10:03, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

> >

> > > > On Feb 7, 7:45 am, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> >

> > > > > Matheology § 222 Back to the roots

> >

> > > > > Consider a Cantor-list with entries a_n and anti-diagonal d:

> >

> > > > Then, according to WM, d is not a line of the list.

> >

> > > Do you agree that the logic applied in set theory does not make a

> > > difference between "for every" and "for all"?

> > > Can you explain why here, in this decisive case, a difference appears

> > > nevertheless?

> >

> > Since neither standard set theory, nor the concept "all" is used

> > by WM in obtaining "d is not a line of the list"

> > I don't know what you mean by "a difference appears".

>

> Look at the original post.

Unless WM can demonstrate such a 'difference' here,

why should anyone believe it exists here?

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