```Date: Feb 11, 2013 12:42 AM
Author: plutonium.archimedes@gmail.com
Subject: how do we get the neutrino as magnetic monopoles #1216 New Physics<br> #1336 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed

How do we get a neutrino as a magnetic monopoles?Sounds both strange and impossible. But let us give it full attention.When physicists learn something, they often miss items that areimportant. Take for instance the Faraday law and the Ampere law. Weall learn the basics. We learn a current flowing yields a magneticfield around the wire. We learn that a moving bar magnet creates aelectric field and a current flowing.But do we miss something? Of course, we never really pay attention tothe positive charge of protons, for we focus our attention only onelectrons.So, I have a problem here. I need to see if a neutrino is a magneticmonopole, perhaps several magnetic monopoles.Now a magnetic field in Maxwell Equations is a dipole field, sooverall it is a neutral magnetic field.But a monopole is not neutral. A electron is not neutral unless weinclude the proton in an electric current.So, in the Maxwell Equations we have a current flowing of electronsbut we also have a proton electric field to balance out the electronelectric field.In the magnetic field, there is both poles, a dipole that overall itis neutral. And in the electric field, thenegative charges balance with the positive to overall neutral.Now, let us tackle the neutrino as a magnetic monopole. It is not onemagnetic monopole but several magnetic monopoles so that overall, theneutrino is a neutral electric charge and a neutral magnetic charge.So we picture the neutrino as a longitudinal wave, and we picture itas the flow of magnetic monopoles, just as the electric field-- anelectric current in flow comprising electrons and protons.Now Dirac in his Directions in Physics book talks about how large themagnetic monopole is. On page 46, Dirac gets a number value of(137/2)e value for the magnetic monopole.I am somewhat, not certain, that Dirac made a mistake in logic in thatcalculation. Using the Schrodinger Equation is one mistake but alarger mistake is that in likelihood, Dirac had it turned around. Inother words, the electric charge is equal to 137/2M for M being amagnetic monopole. I feel Dirac had it turned around backwards, thatit takes 68.5 magnetic monopoles to be on par with just 1 electriccharge. Whereas Dirac was thinking that it takes 68.5 electric chargesto be on par with just 1 magnetic monopole.Now, do yourself a simple everyday experience test. If we pick upstatic electricity, just a little bit of it our bodies immediatelyfeel the impact. But, if we encounter the strongest magnets, we neverreally feel any impact, no matter how strong those magnets are. Oureveryday experience would counterclaim Dirac's 137/2(e) and supportthe other claim of 137/2M.So, what I am after here, is to describe a neutrino as a magneticmonopoles. And what I am coming to a picture of is that a neutrino isa magnetic current composed of monopoles of a minimum amount ofmonopoles of 68.5 monopoles. Now since the neutrino is overall neutralmeans the magnetic monopoles have to be 70 at a minimum and 35 of themhave to be north pole while the other 35 have to be south pole.--Google's archives are top-heavy in hate-spew from search-engine-bombing. Only Drexel's Math Forum has done a excellent, simple andfair archiving of AP posts for the past 15 years as seen here:http://mathforum.org/kb/profile.jspa?userID=499986Archimedes Plutoniumhttp://www.iw.net/~a_plutoniumwhole entire Universe is just one big atomwhere dots of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies
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