Date: Feb 11, 2013 4:07 AM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 214
On 11 Feb., 09:55, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote:

> On 2/11/2013 2:43 AM, WM wrote:

>

>

>

>

>

> > On 11 Feb., 08:48, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:

> >> In article

> >> <b96a20cb-7991-4a49-84ca-6bd658501...@w7g2000yqo.googlegroups.com>,

> >> WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

>

> >>>> Every potentially infinite set already exists.

>

> >>> But none of them are, or ever can become, infinite.

>

> > They cannot "become" actually infinite.

>

> >> Since such "sets" are neither finite nor not finite (infinite), they are

> >> nonexistent.

>

> >> And in van Dalen, p 118, a letter from Brouwer summarising his thesis:

> >> "I can formulate:

> >> 1. Actual infinite sets can be created mathematically"

>

> > As I already mentioned, that is due to an understandable error. At

> > that time mathematicians were drilled to understand by the finite

> > expression "0.111..." an actually infinite sequence of digits. That is

> > wrong.

>

> Right and wrong....

>

> What, in modern mathematics, happened to change that

> situation?

I am teaching my contemporaries. Some have already understood. But it

is a hard job because mathematicians are very, hmm, say conservative.

Regards, WM