Date: Feb 12, 2013 6:18 PM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: infinity can't exist
In article <511AB48E.1B86E33A@btinternet.com>,

Frederick Williams <freddywilliams@btinternet.com> wrote:

> Craig Feinstein wrote:

> >

> > Let's say I have a drawer of an infinite number of identical socks at time

> > zero. I take out one of the socks at time one. Then the contents of the

> > drawer at time zero is identical to the contents of the drawer at time one,

> > since all of the socks are identical and there are still an infinite number

> > of them in the drawer at both times. But the contents of the drawer at time

> > zero is also identical to the contents of the drawer at time one plus the

> > sock that was taken out, since they are exactly the same material. So we

> > have the equations:

> >

> > Contents of drawer at time 0 = Contents of drawer at time 1

> > Contents of drawer at time 0 = (Contents of drawer at time 1) plus (sock

> > taken out of drawer).

> >

> > Subtracting the equations, we get

> >

> > Nothing = sock taken out of drawer.

> >

> > This is false, so infinity cannot exist.

> >

> > How does modern mathematics resolve this paradox?

>

> If alpha - 1 is defined to be that beta such that alpha = beta + 1, then

> aleph_0 - 1 = aleph_0.

Works for me!

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