Date: Feb 20, 2013 8:24 PM
Author: sean bruce
Subject: induction on finite set.

I'm trying to prove a lemma for outer measure that requires induction, P(1) is true but when I do the inductive step, assume P(n) to show P(n+1), there is a problem, because I am working with outer measure and the statement is not true for an infinite set. I only need to show the statement true for a finite set. I am rusty on induction and don't remember if it is ok to show P(1) true, assume P(n-1) true to show P(n) true.The text book I'm using does this, but I don't follow the logic. Any help or even thoughts would be most helpful!