Date: Feb 21, 2013 2:23 PM
Author: William Hughes
Subject: Re: Matheology § 222 Back to the roots
On Feb 21, 6:40 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> On 21 Feb., 14:18, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> > According to WM

>

> > i.;

>

> > A) For every natural number n, P(n) is true.

> > implies

>

> that this claim A holds for every natural number from 1 to n, but not

> necessarily for infinitely many following.

>

> > B) There does not exist a natural number n such that P(n) is

> > false.

>

> In potential infinity you have to distinguish between existence and

> the possibility to identify.

> Every potentially infinite set of natural numbers has a last element.

> But you cannot identify it.

I do not understand. You made the claim that A implies B.

Now you seem to be arguing against this. Note that the statement

in B is that the natural number n does not exist, not that

the natural number n cannot be identified. I remind you again

that the words are yours.