Date: Feb 21, 2013 2:23 PM
Author: William Hughes
Subject: Re: Matheology § 222 Back to the roots

On Feb 21, 6:40 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
> On 21 Feb., 14:18, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
>

> > According to WM
>
> > i.;
>
> >     A) For every natural number n, P(n) is true.
> >       implies

>
> that this claim A holds for every natural number from 1 to n, but not
> necessarily for infinitely many following.
>

> >     B) There does not exist a natural number n such that P(n) is
> > false.

>
> In potential infinity you have to distinguish between existence and
> the possibility to identify.
> Every potentially infinite set of natural numbers has a last element.
> But you cannot identify it.



I do not understand. You made the claim that A implies B.
Now you seem to be arguing against this. Note that the statement
in B is that the natural number n does not exist, not that
the natural number n cannot be identified. I remind you again
that the words are yours.