Date: Feb 21, 2013 5:02 PM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 222 Back to the roots
On 21 Feb., 20:23, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

> On Feb 21, 6:40 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

>

>

>

>

>

> > On 21 Feb., 14:18, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> > > According to WM

>

> > > i.;

>

> > > A) For every natural number n, P(n) is true.

> > > implies

>

> > that this claim A holds for every natural number from 1 to n, but not

> > necessarily for infinitely many following.

>

> > > B) There does not exist a natural number n such that P(n) is

> > > false.

In fact we cannot find such a number. Nevertheless we cannot exclude

its existence. Please consider what I wrote about the sets A and B.

We cannot find a last finite number that has left A. Nevertheless it

must exist.

>

> > In potential infinity you have to distinguish between existence and

> > the possibility to identify.

> > Every potentially infinite set of natural numbers has a last element.

> > But you cannot identify it.

>

> I do not understand. You made the claim that A implies B.

For every number from 1 to n.

> Now you seem to be arguing against this. Note that the statement

> in B is that the natural number n does not exist, not that

> the natural number n cannot be identified. I remind you again

> that the words are yours.-

The statement is that the natural number does not exist between 1 and

n inclusively.

Find a FIS of d that is not in a line of the list or agree that you

cannot prove that there is no natural number such that line(n) = d.

Regards, WM