Date: Feb 23, 2013 10:54 AM
Author: William Hughes
Subject: Re: Matheology § 222 Back to the roots
On Feb 23, 1:24 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> On 23 Feb., 11:51, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

> > On Feb 23, 11:42 am, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

>

> > > On 23 Feb., 10:59, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> > > > On Feb 23, 12:03 am, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> > > > > Does

>

> > > > > For every natural number n, P(n)

> > > > > is true.

>

> > > > > imply

>

> > > > > There is no natural number m such

> > > > > that P(m) is false.

>

> > > > Does

>

> > > > There is a line, l, of L

> > > > such that l has property P

>

> > > > imply

>

> > > > There exists a natural number

> > > > m such that the mth line of L

> > > > has property P.

>

> > > > ?

>

> Yes if we interpret "there exists" in the correct way.

Are the statements

There exists a natural number

m such that the mth line of L

has property P.

There does not exist a natural number

m such that the mth line of L

has property P.

contradictory?