Date: Feb 23, 2013 10:54 AM
Author: William Hughes
Subject: Re: Matheology § 222 Back to the roots

On Feb 23, 1:24 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
> On 23 Feb., 11:51, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>

> > On Feb 23, 11:42 am, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
>
> > > On 23 Feb., 10:59, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > > On Feb 23, 12:03 am, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > > > Does
>
> > > > > For every natural number n, P(n)
> > > > > is true.

>
> > > > > imply
>
> > > > > There is no natural number m such
> > > > > that P(m) is false.

>
> > > > Does
>
> > > > There is a line, l, of L
> > > > such that l has property P

>
> > > > imply
>
> > > > There exists a natural number
> > > > m such that the mth line of L
> > > > has property P.

>
> > > > ?
>
> Yes if we interpret "there exists" in the correct way.



Are the statements

There exists a natural number
m such that the mth line of L
has property P.


There does not exist a natural number
m such that the mth line of L
has property P.

contradictory?