Date: Mar 20, 2013 8:17 PM
Author: fom
Subject: Re: Matheology § 224
On 3/20/2013 4:23 PM, WM wrote:

> On 20 Mrz., 22:13, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:

>> In article

>> <f9fdc960-d9af-4efe-9e88-4ad45e2e8...@bs5g2000vbb.googlegroups.com>,

>>

>> WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

>>> On 20 Mrz., 21:11, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:

>>

>>>> While WM may not be aware of the fine points of English, when he speaks

>>>> of "THE last line", in standard English it suggest that there is a last

>>>> line.

Reference involving the definite article "the" is called

"definite description". It is well established that WM

understands neither the coarser points nor the finer

points of its use.

The Germanic languages have several definite articles.

I wonder if he has as many problems with genders as he

does with presuppositions.

>>

>>> Can a well-defined list have more than one last line?

>>

>> It can have less than one last line!

>

> Then *the* last line is missing, not *a* last line as one of many.

For WM:

Can you see the difference?

definite vs indefinite

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_descriptions#Definite_descriptions

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_descriptions#Indefinite_descriptions