Date: Mar 23, 2013 1:44 PM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 224

On 23 Mrz., 18:02, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote:
> On 3/23/2013 11:05 AM, WM wrote:
>
>
>
>
>

> > On 23 Mrz., 01:08, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:
> >> In article
> >> <cab606ea-29e6-48ae-97c1-56cd1fd39...@f5g2000yqp.googlegroups.com>,

>
> >>   WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
> >>> On 22 Mrz., 16:24, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> >>>>> And what is in your opinion beyond any finite set of lines?
>
> >>>> There is no such thing
> >>>> as "beyond every finite set of lines".
> >>>> Infinite sets are different from finite sets
> >>>> but they do not contain anything
> >>>> "beyond any finite set".

>
> >>> The decimal expansion of pi is not beyond any finite (i.e. rational)
> >>> approximation?

>
> >> Since the decimal expansion of p is made up of digits in sequence, WM
> >> needs to tell us which is the first of its digits tot exceeds finite
> >> approximation?
> >> --

>
> > If there is not more then all finite approximations, then there is no
> > uncountability, because all rational approximations belong to a
> > countable set.

>
> That was not what the question asked.


I didn't want to answer but to show that the question is stupid.

Regards, WM