Date: Mar 23, 2013 1:44 PM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 224
On 23 Mrz., 18:02, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote:

> On 3/23/2013 11:05 AM, WM wrote:

>

>

>

>

>

> > On 23 Mrz., 01:08, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:

> >> In article

> >> <cab606ea-29e6-48ae-97c1-56cd1fd39...@f5g2000yqp.googlegroups.com>,

>

> >> WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> >>> On 22 Mrz., 16:24, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:

>

> >>>>> And what is in your opinion beyond any finite set of lines?

>

> >>>> There is no such thing

> >>>> as "beyond every finite set of lines".

> >>>> Infinite sets are different from finite sets

> >>>> but they do not contain anything

> >>>> "beyond any finite set".

>

> >>> The decimal expansion of pi is not beyond any finite (i.e. rational)

> >>> approximation?

>

> >> Since the decimal expansion of p is made up of digits in sequence, WM

> >> needs to tell us which is the first of its digits tot exceeds finite

> >> approximation?

> >> --

>

> > If there is not more then all finite approximations, then there is no

> > uncountability, because all rational approximations belong to a

> > countable set.

>

> That was not what the question asked.

I didn't want to answer but to show that the question is stupid.

Regards, WM