Date: May 23, 2013 11:11 AM
Subject: Does this imply that lim x --> oo f'(x) = 0?

Suppose f:[0, oo) --> R is increasing, differentiable and has a finite limit as x --> oo. Then, must we have lim x --> oo f'(x) = 0?  I guess not, but couldn't  find a counter example.

Thank you