Date: May 24, 2013 10:50 PM
Author: William Elliot
Subject: Re: Does this imply that lim x --> oo f'(x) = 0?
On Fri, 24 May 2013, baclesback@gmail.com wrote:

> On Friday, May 24, 2013 3:28:09 AM UTC-4, William Elliot wrote:

> > > > Suppose f:[0, oo) --> R is increasing, differentiable and has a

> > > > finite limit as x --> oo. Then, must we have lim x --> oo f'(x) =

> > > > 0? I guess not, but couldn't find a counter example.

> How about this: with the same lay out as before: f(n+1)-f(n)=f'(cn).

Give it up, counter examples have been presented.