Date: Nov 2, 2013 12:16 AM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: Formal proof of the ambiguity of 0^0

In article <XnsA26BE4E8ADCECgoddardbenetscapenet@>,
Bart Goddard <> wrote:

> Dan Christensen <> wrote in

> > As I have said repeatedly, it is assumed to be a natural number, but
> > no specific value is assigned to it. So, yes, that makes it
> > "undefined." What is your point, Barty?

> The point, as I've said repeatedly, is that your
> "theorem" assumes that it has a value. If it's not
> defined, then it has no value (or meaning.) Contradiction.
> 0^1 is defined in terms of 0^0. So now, 0^1 is
> undefined.

I believe that x^1 can be defined as x for all real x,
without requiring any definition for x^0 at all,
and then x^2 can be defined as (x^1)*x for all real x.