Date: Jun 19, 2014 3:59 AM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: 1.39 - What exactly is the Mean value Theorem?
In article <929be574-b881-4442-ad67-e741fb1823de@googlegroups.com>,

John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote:

> In mainstream mythmatics, the MVT is ignorantly defined as follows:

>

> If f is a differentiable function on (a,b), then there is at least one point

> c, such that a secant line with endpoints (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)) is parallel

> to the tangent line at c.

>

> But the converse of this is NOT true in mainstream calculus:

>

> If f is a differentiable function on (a,b), and a tangent line exists at c,

> then a parallel secant line exists with endpoints (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)).

>

> However, the MVT works regardless of the converse being true. The reason for

> this, is that ignorant baboons (that would be you) do not know its real

> meaning. In the New Calculus, the MVT is defined properly:

In JG's improper NC, nothing is defined properly for proper calculus.

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