
Re: Does this imply that lim x > oo f'(x) = 0?
Posted:
May 24, 2013 10:50 PM


On Fri, 24 May 2013, baclesback@gmail.com wrote: > On Friday, May 24, 2013 3:28:09 AM UTC4, William Elliot wrote:
> > > > Suppose f:[0, oo) > R is increasing, differentiable and has a > > > > finite limit as x > oo. Then, must we have lim x > oo f'(x) = > > > > 0? I guess not, but couldn't find a counter example.
> How about this: with the same lay out as before: f(n+1)f(n)=f'(cn).
Give it up, counter examples have been presented.

