Virgil
Posts:
8,833
Registered:
1/6/11


Re: 1.39  What exactly is the Mean value Theorem?
Posted:
Jun 19, 2014 1:37 PM


In article <4ef2d3623ac849a6b9f741324c287796@googlegroups.com>, John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Thursday, 19 June 2014 16:20:50 UTC+2, Dirk Van de moortel wrote: > > John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote: > > > > > On Thursday, 19 June 2014 15:54:31 UTC+2, Dirk Van de moortel wrote: > > > > > > > > > >> He might have missed the apostrophe in f'. > > > > > > > > > > Like you he misses a lot of things. > > > > > > > > > >>> He keeps getting it wrong. Gee, I wish that clowns would stop > > > > >>> posting crap. > > > > > > > > > >> Perhaps you should be an example then. > > > > > > > > > > How about you practise what you preach? Just because you understood > > > > > this part does not mean you know everything now! You are wrong about > > > > > so many things which you have failed to understand. > > > > > > > > Take the function f(x) = 1/x. > > > > See if you can prove continuity at x=1 with *your* equivalence: > > > > For all epsilon > 0, Exist delta > 0, > > > > such that for all x: > > > > x1 < delta <==> 1/x1 < epsilon > > > Take epsilon = 2. > > > Give me that delta,and I'll give you an x that does > > NOT satisfy the equivalence. > > Sure you are on the right thread?
if it shows how wrong JG's NC is, which it does, then it is in the right thread 

