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Re: How well do the first n terms of Maclaurin's expansion approximate a function?
Posted:
Apr 10, 2004 4:03 PM
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In article <waderameyxiii-3f1f1b.11232210042004@comcast.ash.giganews.com>,
the world wide wade <waderameyxiii@comcast.remove13.net> wrote:
|> i guess you're only doing the case where x0<x1<...<xn at all non-zero
|> times?
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|Not sure how you got that idea. I only assumed x0, x1, ..., xn are
|distinct; I see no problem allowing one of xj's to be 0. I haven't thought
|about "degenerate" cases.
that's what i was talking about, that you didn't discuss the
degenerate cases. (in the non-degenerate case x0<x1<...<xn without
loss of generality.) in giving a characterization of the c^n
functions along the lines i suggested it would probably be more
annoying to leave the degenerate cases out than to include them.
--
[e-mail address jdolan@math.ucr.edu]
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