
Re: How well do the first n terms of Maclaurin's expansion approximate a function?
Posted:
Apr 10, 2004 4:03 PM


In article <waderameyxiii3f1f1b.11232210042004@comcast.ash.giganews.com>, the world wide wade <waderameyxiii@comcast.remove13.net> wrote:
> i guess you're only doing the case where x0<x1<...<xn at all nonzero > times?  Not sure how you got that idea. I only assumed x0, x1, ..., xn are distinct; I see no problem allowing one of xj's to be 0. I haven't thought about "degenerate" cases.
that's what i was talking about, that you didn't discuss the degenerate cases. (in the nondegenerate case x0<x1<...<xn without loss of generality.) in giving a characterization of the c^n functions along the lines i suggested it would probably be more annoying to leave the degenerate cases out than to include them.

[email address jdolan@math.ucr.edu]

