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Re: Riemann mapping theorem
Posted:
Mar 24, 2006 11:39 AM


"Lara" <the_brat_taz@yahoo.com> wrote in message news:1143216397.311468.39610@i39g2000cwa.googlegroups.com... > Show that for every conformal f: { z = x + iy , y >0} >{ z = x + iy > , y > 0} > there exist a,b,c,d in R such that ad  bc = 1, f(z)= (azb) / (czd) > > should we use Riemann mapping theorem ?? >
You shouldn't need anything as powerful as the Riemann mapping theorem. Find two fractional linear transformations g and h such that go(foh) maps the unit disc into the unit disc and such that g(f(h(0))) = 0.
________________________________ Eric J. Wingler (wingler@math.ysu.edu) Dept. of Mathematics and Statistics Youngstown State University One University Plaza Youngstown, OH 445550001 3309411817



