
Re: About the proof that L1 is the dual of c0
Posted:
Oct 21, 2006 5:25 PM


On 21 Oct 2006 08:16:28 0700, "nkorppi" <korpelainen@gmail.com> wrote:
>On page 104 of these Functional Analysis notes >(http://www.mth.kcl.ac.uk/~iwilde/notes/fa2/fa2.pdf) , the author gives >a proof that L1 is the dual of c0. > >On the next page he explains the general argument, due to HahnBanach, >which shows that L1 is not the dual of L{infinity}. > >However, in the proof itself, I cannot really see how the fact that >sequences converge to zero is used? How would the 'onto' part of the >proof go wrong if c0 were to be replaced by L{infinity}? > >I'm going beserks trying to figure it out...
And of course you have the author's permission to post these notes for all the world to copy.
Lynn

