Snidely
Posts:
9
Registered:
10/15/10
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Re: Is this mathematically possible?
Posted:
Oct 15, 2010 1:48 PM
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On Oct 15, 10:46 am, Snidely <snidely....@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Oct 15, 1:18 am, Jared <jared4...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Let's say you are given a mean and a median for several percentile
> > ranges.
>
> > From the zeroth to the 20th percentile, let's say the median is 7.5
> > and the mean is 72.6.
> > From the 20th to the 40th percentile, the median is 33.7 and the mean
> > is 121.5.
> > And from the 40th to the 60th percentile, the median is 72 and the
> > mean is 194.6.
>
> > The rest doesn't really matter; this illustrates my point.
>
> > How can the mean for 0-20 be higher than the median for the 40-60
> > range? Isn't that mathematically impossible?
>
> I am having trouble picturing what is being described here. A median
> of 7.5 and a mean of 72.6? An order of magnitude difference? That
> sounds like very skewed data, which I suppose is possible if you're
> looking, for example, at a gaussian distribution from the tail to
> where the central bump just takes off (steeply). That is, if you're
> computing the median of the elements of the data set that appear in
> the range, and the mean of the same elements.
>
> Am I getting warm?
And if I'm warm, the mean should lie within the set being computed,
which means that it shouldn't be in the next set over ... you've
partitioned things, after all.
/dps
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