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can someone solve this integral?
Posted:
Feb 8, 2012 4:12 PM


Hi all, without much ado this is the question:
integrate 1/(2*pi*sigma^2)*1/(v^2+w^2)^2*exp(1/(2*sigma^2)*1/ (v^2+w^2)) with respect to v (or w) from inf to +inf. I came across it while trying to marginalize a joint probability distribution. v and w are unfortunately not independent.
Cheers



