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Topic: 0^0=1
Replies: 3   Last Post: May 8, 2012 3:52 AM

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Jussi Piitulainen

Posts: 303
Registered: 12/12/04
Re: 0^0=1
Posted: May 8, 2012 3:52 AM
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Ross writes:

> Defining 0^0 = 1 is convenient in some situations, e.g. the Binomial
> Theorem cannot calculate the probability that you get zero successes
> in zero trials unless you define 0^0 = 1.
>
> However, going from "it is sometimes convenient" to define 0^0 = 1
> to insisting that this should be a general definition seems a bit of
> an unjustified leap.


It is convenient generally, not just sometimes.

> Particularly if you use b^(n+1) = b^n / b as your basis for claiming
> that b^0 = 1 and b^-1 = 1/b, when that clearly doesn't apply when b
> = 0.


That is not used as a justification for defining 0^0. It is used as a
justification for leaving 0^0 undefined, even though it does not apply
in that case.


Date Subject Author
5/7/12
Read Re: 0^0=1
Jesse F. Hughes
5/8/12
Read Re: 0^0=1
Ross Clement
5/8/12
Read Re: 0^0=1
Jussi Piitulainen

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