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Re: 0^0=1
Posted:
May 8, 2012 3:52 AM
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Ross writes:
> Defining 0^0 = 1 is convenient in some situations, e.g. the Binomial
> Theorem cannot calculate the probability that you get zero successes
> in zero trials unless you define 0^0 = 1.
>
> However, going from "it is sometimes convenient" to define 0^0 = 1
> to insisting that this should be a general definition seems a bit of
> an unjustified leap.
It is convenient generally, not just sometimes.
> Particularly if you use b^(n+1) = b^n / b as your basis for claiming
> that b^0 = 1 and b^-1 = 1/b, when that clearly doesn't apply when b
> = 0.
That is not used as a justification for defining 0^0. It is used as a
justification for leaving 0^0 undefined, even though it does not apply
in that case.
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