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 manontheclaphamomnibus Posts: 31 Registered: 11/12/12
Posted: Jan 21, 2013 8:42 PM

This following must obviously be too simple, but if someone can explain what it misses, I'd be very grateful.

If there are only finitely many pairs (n, n+2), both prime, then from the apparently infinitely many numbers x such that x is

neither [0]mod2 nor [0]mod2,
nor [0]mod3 nor [1]mod3,
nor [0]mod5 nor [3]mod5....
nor [0]modp nor [p-2](modp for all p < sqrt(x + 1)),

then above a certain size, either the seeming inductive step for filtering all candidate numbers x by the two requirements modulo the next additional prime breaks down, or else some extra condition begins to hold.

Either way, somehow even if infinitely many x remain satisfying the conditions for each specific p_i from then on, none of them after this point need be small enough to ensure any longer that infinitely many x meet these conditions for all values of p < sqrt(x + 1) in general? Is this the main problem with trying to show this?

Thanks!