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Re: This is False. 0/0 {x | x ~e x} e {x | x ~e x} A single Principle to Resolve Several Paradoxes
Posted:
Feb 11, 2013 1:59 PM
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On Feb 9, 8:09 pm, Graham Cooper <grahamcoop...@gmail.com> wrote: > On Feb 10, 10:19 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > > > > > > > > > On Feb 7, 1:51 am, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote: > > > > On 2/5/2013 9:32 AM, Charlie-Boo wrote: > > > > > On Feb 4, 4:26 pm, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote: > > > >> On 2/4/2013 8:46 AM, Charlie-Boo wrote: > > > > >>> On Feb 4, 12:25 am, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote: > > > >>>> On 2/3/2013 10:19 PM, Charlie-Boo wrote: > > > >>>> <snip> > > > > >>>>>>>> In PROLOG we use lowercase words for TERMS > > > >>>>>>>> and uppercase words for VARIABLES > > > > >>>>>>>> ATOMIC PREDICATE > > > > >>>>>>> ATOMIC PREDICATE meaning relation? > > > > >>>>>>> C-B > > > > >>>>>> RELATION > > > >>>>>> p(a, b, e) > > > > >>>>> If wffs are built on relations then { x | x ~e x } is not a wff > > > >>>>> because ~e is not a relation. > > > > >>>> Well-formed formulas are built from the alphabet > > > >>>> of a formal language. If the language contains > > > >>>> a symbol of negation, then NOT(xex) will be a > > > >>>> well-formed formula. > > > > >>> You have to define what value a symbol may have - how it is > > > >>> interpreted in your definition of a wff. You need to complete B > > > >>> below to see there is no paradox if you are consistent about what a > > > >>> wff may contain and what values it may equal after substitution > > > >>> (interpretation) if it contains variables for functions. > > > > >> First, I was not in a good mood when I posted. So, I may > > > >> have been too dogmatic. > > > > >> What you seem to be objecting to is the historical development > > > >> of a logical calculus along the lines of Brentano and DeMorgan. > > > > I meant Bolzano here. > > > > > The only objecting in my Set Theory proposal is perhaps objecting to > > > > the fact that ZF has a dozen messy axioms, a dozen competing > > > > axiomatizations, a dozen interpretations of the most popular > > > > Axiomatization, and (Wikipedia), The precise meanings of the terms > > > > associated with the separation axioms has varied over time. The > > > > separation axioms have had a convoluted history, with many competing > > > > meanings for the same term, and many competing terms for the same > > > > concept. > > > > > (DeMorgan is an example of why Logic and Set Theory are the same thing > > > > and should be combined - same as Math and Computer Science etc.) > > > > How do you see Logic and Set Theory as being the same? > > > Both are concerned with mappings to {true,false}. A propositional > > calculus proposition is 0-place. A set is 1-place. A relation is any > > number of places. (A relation is a set - of tuples.) > > > So you have the same rules of inference: Double Negative, DeMorgan > > etc. apply to propositions and sets. > > > To prove incompleteness, Godel had to generalize wffs as expressing > > propositions to expressing sets when the wff has a free variable. > > > C-B > > Yes but you change the rules of the game depending what you want to > prove. > > Let: > > LANGUAGE 1 LANGUAGE 2 > > seta(x) <-> x e seta > > proof(x) <-> x e proof > > proveby(x,y) <-> (x,y) e proveby > > russell(x) <-> not( x e x) > > ------------------- > > In ZFC you "UNSTRATIFY" Russel's set > but in all theories > PA you necessitate Godel's Statment! > > Sheer blindness! > > TOM: Jerry can't say this sentence is true! > JERRY: Tom can't say this sentence is true! > > TOM AND JERRY ARE *INCOMPLETE* !!
There are a lot of premises there.
TOM can express "unprovable by JERRY". TOM can express truth in JERRY. (Uh-oh, Tarski) JERRY can express "unprovable by TOM". JERRY can express truth in TOM. (Uh-oh, Tarski)
But I use CBL where this is all easily formalized.
C-B
> must be unrelated to logic! > > Herc > --www.BLoCKPROLOG.com
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