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Re: Godels theorems end in paradox
Posted:
Feb 3, 2013 10:09 AM
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"christian.bau" <christian.bau@cbau.wanadoo.co.uk> writes:
> You'd have to translate what you state into a mathematical formula.
> That's what Gödel did; he translated "there is a mathematical proof
> for Theorem X" into a mathematical formula. No mathematical formula,
> no Gödel theorem, no paradox. Gödel's theorem applies to mathematics,
> not to handwaving arguments.
As an account of the first incompleteness theorem this is of course a
huge improvement over Australia's leading erotic poet's attempt, but
taken literally -- and when it comes to these matters we should strive
to say things that are, literally speaking, true and accurate -- it is
more or less nonsense nevertheless.
--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta@uta.fi)
"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, darüber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
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