
Re: Matheology § 214
Posted:
Feb 11, 2013 4:07 AM


On 11 Feb., 09:55, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote: > On 2/11/2013 2:43 AM, WM wrote: > > > > > > > On 11 Feb., 08:48, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote: > >> In article > >> <b96a20cb79914a4984ca6bd658501...@w7g2000yqo.googlegroups.com>, > >> WM <mueck...@rz.fhaugsburg.de> wrote: > > >>>> Every potentially infinite set already exists. > > >>> But none of them are, or ever can become, infinite. > > > They cannot "become" actually infinite. > > >> Since such "sets" are neither finite nor not finite (infinite), they are > >> nonexistent. > > >> And in van Dalen, p 118, a letter from Brouwer summarising his thesis: > >> "I can formulate: > >> 1. Actual infinite sets can be created mathematically" > > > As I already mentioned, that is due to an understandable error. At > > that time mathematicians were drilled to understand by the finite > > expression "0.111..." an actually infinite sequence of digits. That is > > wrong. > > Right and wrong.... > > What, in modern mathematics, happened to change that > situation?
I am teaching my contemporaries. Some have already understood. But it is a hard job because mathematicians are very, hmm, say conservative.
Regards, WM

