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how do we get the neutrino as magnetic monopoles #1216 New Physics
#1336 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed
Posted:
Feb 11, 2013 12:42 AM
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How do we get a neutrino as a magnetic monopoles?
Sounds both strange and impossible. But let us give it full attention.
When physicists learn something, they often miss items that are
important. Take for instance the Faraday law and the Ampere law. We
all learn the basics. We learn a current flowing yields a magnetic
field around the wire. We learn that a moving bar magnet creates a
electric field and a current flowing.
But do we miss something? Of course, we never really pay attention to
the positive charge of protons, for we focus our attention only on
electrons.
So, I have a problem here. I need to see if a neutrino is a magnetic
monopole, perhaps several magnetic monopoles.
Now a magnetic field in Maxwell Equations is a dipole field, so
overall it is a neutral magnetic field.
But a monopole is not neutral. A electron is not neutral unless we
include the proton in an electric current.
So, in the Maxwell Equations we have a current flowing of electrons
but we also have a proton electric field to balance out the electron
electric field.
In the magnetic field, there is both poles, a dipole that overall it
is neutral. And in the electric field, the
negative charges balance with the positive to overall neutral.
Now, let us tackle the neutrino as a magnetic monopole. It is not one
magnetic monopole but several magnetic monopoles so that overall, the
neutrino is a neutral electric charge and a neutral magnetic charge.
So we picture the neutrino as a longitudinal wave, and we picture it
as the flow of magnetic monopoles, just as the electric field-- an
electric current in flow comprising electrons and protons.
Now Dirac in his Directions in Physics book talks about how large the
magnetic monopole is. On page 46, Dirac gets a number value of
(137/2)e value for the magnetic monopole.
I am somewhat, not certain, that Dirac made a mistake in logic in that
calculation. Using the Schrodinger Equation is one mistake but a
larger mistake is that in likelihood, Dirac had it turned around. In
other words, the electric charge is equal to 137/2M for M being a
magnetic monopole. I feel Dirac had it turned around backwards, that
it takes 68.5 magnetic monopoles to be on par with just 1 electric
charge. Whereas Dirac was thinking that it takes 68.5 electric charges
to be on par with just 1 magnetic monopole.
Now, do yourself a simple everyday experience test. If we pick up
static electricity, just a little bit of it our bodies immediately
feel the impact. But, if we encounter the strongest magnets, we never
really feel any impact, no matter how strong those magnets are. Our
everyday experience would counterclaim Dirac's 137/2(e) and support
the other claim of 137/2M.
So, what I am after here, is to describe a neutrino as a magnetic
monopoles. And what I am coming to a picture of is that a neutrino is
a magnetic current composed of monopoles of a minimum amount of
monopoles of 68.5 monopoles. Now since the neutrino is overall neutral
means the magnetic monopoles have to be 70 at a minimum and 35 of them
have to be north pole while the other 35 have to be south pole.
--
Google's archives are top-heavy in hate-spew from search-engine-
bombing. Only Drexel's Math Forum has done a excellent, simple and
fair archiving of AP posts for the past 15 years as seen here:
http://mathforum.org/kb/profile.jspa?userID=499986
Archimedes Plutonium
http://www.iw.net/~a_plutonium
whole entire Universe is just one big atom
where dots of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies
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