Search All of the Math Forum:
Views expressed in these public forums are not endorsed by
Drexel University or The Math Forum.



Joke (one school formula and not a school withdrawal)
Posted:
May 3, 2013 2:39 AM


Assume that for coprime A, B and C and 1°) A^n=C^nB^n [=(CB)P], where n>2 and C>B>0 and 1a°) P=p^n=C^{n1}+C^{n2}B+? +CB^{n2}+B^{n1}. The proof of the FLT If B=C1 (obviously in this case, equation 1° has no solutions), we have: 2°) C^n(C1)^n=1*[C^{n1}+C^{n2}(C1)+? +C(C1)^{n2}+(C1)^{n1}] [=max P]. To get any other meaning of the number P, the number C1 should be monotonically increased ? to judge from the left side of 2°, and THAT SAME number C1 should monotonically decrease (up to the value B) ? judging by the right of the 2°. And we have an insoluble contradiction. This proves the theorem.



