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Topic: a logical flaw in godels proof - thus proof meaninglessness
Replies: 6   Last Post: Jan 8, 2014 9:09 PM

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byron

Posts: 885
Registered: 3/3/09
a logical flaw in godels proof - thus proof meaninglessness
Posted: Jun 7, 2013 4:55 AM
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australias leading erotic poet colin leslie dean points out
a logical flaw in godels proof which makes his proof meaninglessness
an axiom in the system godel uses ie axiom of reducibility AR bans his G statement

http://www.scribd.com/doc/32970323/Godels-incompleteness-theorem-invalid-illegitimate

IT SHOULD BE NOTED
Godel sentence G is outlawed by the very axiom he uses to prove his theorem ie the axiom of reducibiility -thus his proof is invalid-and thus
godel commits a flaw by useing it to prove his theorem

http://www.enotes.com/topic/Axiom_of_reducibility


russells axiom of reducibility was formed such that impredicative
statements where banned

http://www.scribd.com/doc/32970323/Godels-incompleteness-theorem-invalid-illegitimate


but godels uses this AR axiom in his incompleteness proof ie axiom 1v
and formular 40

and as godel states he is useing the logic of PM ie AR

?P is essentially the system obtained by superimposing on the Peano
axioms [b]the logic of PM[/b]? ie AR

now godel constructs an impredicative statement G which AR was meant
to ban

The impredicative statement Godel constructs is
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del%27s_incompleteness_theorems


?the corresponding Gödel sentence G asserts: ?G cannot be proved to be
true within the theory T??

now godels use of AR bans godels G statement

thus godel cannot then go on to give a proof by useing a statement his
own axiom bans
but by doing so he invalidates his whole proof and his proof/logic is
flawed


we have a dilemma

DILEMMA
1)
if godel is useing AR then he cannot use G as it is outlawed
thus his proof collapses
2) if godel is not useing AR then he is lying when he tells us he is
and thus his theorem cannot be about PM and related systems



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