
Re: Could 0^0=0? Maybe!
Posted:
Sep 26, 2013 10:29 AM


On Thursday, September 26, 2013 5:10:54 AM UTC4, Richard Tobin wrote: > In article <b63a9e6657b345f7a1b65adcd9700978@googlegroups.com>, > > Dan Christensen <Dan_Christensen@sympatico.ca> wrote: > > > > >Many designers of programming languages assume that 0^0=1. > > > > Do you have any evidence that they "assume" this, rather than > > investigating it and making a reasoned decision? > > > > Designers of current programming languages may follow IEEE 754, which > > defines three power functions. pown(x,y) is defined for integral exponents > > only, and has pown(0,0) = 1, which avoids many special cases. powr(x,y) > > is defined as exp(y log(x)) so naturally has powr(0,0) raise an > > exception. The generic pow(x,y) has pow(0,0) = 1. >
I have been looking for some kind of international standards organization that deals with such matters. Thanks.
Dan Download my DC Proof 2.0 software at http://www.dcproof.com

