Drexel dragonThe Math ForumDonate to the Math Forum



Search All of the Math Forum:

Views expressed in these public forums are not endorsed by Drexel University or The Math Forum.


Math Forum » Discussions » sci.math.* » sci.math

Topic: Lorentz transform, unique?
Replies: 0  

Advanced Search

Back to Topic List Back to Topic List  
Rich Delaney

Posts: 359
Registered: 12/13/04
Lorentz transform, unique?
Posted: Mar 10, 2014 1:04 PM
  Click to see the message monospaced in plain text Plain Text   Click to reply to this topic Reply

Lorentz invented his formula to explain the null M-M result,
postulating length contraction. Later co-opted by Einstein,
and applied to time.

My question is, how did Lorentz derive this? And,
is it provably unique, as THE only possible way to
relate co-ordinate frames?

Look in any text, it's always "here's the magic
formula, it'll be on the exam, don't ask why."
Never any proof of uniqueness.



--
Rich




Point your RSS reader here for a feed of the latest messages in this topic.

[Privacy Policy] [Terms of Use]

© Drexel University 1994-2014. All Rights Reserved.
The Math Forum is a research and educational enterprise of the Drexel University School of Education.