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Replies: 24   Last Post: Jul 21, 2014 3:57 PM

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 wolfgang.mueckenheim@hs-augsburg.de Posts: 3,394 Registered: 10/18/08
Posted: Jul 21, 2014 3:49 AM

Am Montag, 21. Juli 2014 08:17:00 UTC+2 schrieb Jürgen R.:

> >> And you believe to have proven that no such function exists.
>

> > I believe that such a function exists up to every n respectively r. But I know that beyond every n respectively r, there are infinitely many following. Otherwise we would have a contradiction.

> Evidently you are confused by the function concept in mathematics.
>
> "Up to" which x does do you "believe that" f(x) = x^3 exists?

Up to every x that I or anybody else can define.
>
>
> "Up to" which z and w do you "believe that" w = Riemannzeta(z) maps the
>
> complex plane to a Riemann surface?

Here we have no linear order. So for real and imaginary part of z: Up to every size that can be defined.
>
>
> There is no "up to" involved in the case of the function n = F(p,q),
> defined above;

You are wrong. Every natural (n or p or q) that you define has finitely many predecessors but infinitely many successors. Therefore it belongs to a vanishing subset. But that cannot be understood by such like you.

> and "I believe that" is not a mathematical argument.

That's why you are wrong.

Regards, WM