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Topic: where Dirac went wrong; 2/137(e) for magnetic monopole #70 all of
geology from Maxwell Eq textbook

Replies: 5   Last Post: Aug 30, 2014 12:53 AM

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plutonium.archimedes@gmail.com

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Registered: 3/31/08
where Dirac went wrong; 2/137(e) for magnetic monopole #70 all of
geology from Maxwell Eq textbook

Posted: Aug 28, 2014 2:25 PM
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where Dirac went wrong; 2/137(e) for magnetic monopole #70 all of geology from Maxwell Eq textbook

Alright, I am re-reading Dirac's famous book Directions in Physics pages 39 to 46 to see if I can spot where Dirac made the mistake. The mistake is that he concludes the magnetic monopole to be of 137/2(e) whereas the true answer is the inversion 2/137(e).

If magnetic monopoles exist, and had energy content of 137/2(e), we would have discovered them long before Dirac was ever borne. However, if magnetic monopoles were 2/137(e), they could stay hidden in Nature and not be noticed as magnetic monopoles simply because the electron and proton charge is 1 compared to 2/137.

So, where is Dirac's mistake in his analysis? Now, realize I deem Dirac as the greatest physicist while alive (he died in 1984), and that Einstein in comparison to Dirac was a shrimp or midget of physics. So for me to go up against and correcting Dirac, is no pleasure on my part, for he was the best physicist while alive. His book, Directions in Physics (1978) is the very best book of physics before the Atom Totality book (1990) of the 20th century.

Now I think the error of inversion comes early on, for on page 40 Dirac talks about

"One then knows that the usual interpretation of that wave function is that if it is normalized, the square of its modulus psi^2 gives us the probability of the particle being in any particular place."

Now, physics is mostly done on particles, not on waves, for we constantly think in terms of the electron as a particle and seldom if ever a wave. So the problem that Dirac has in this part of the analysis, is that he is fully considering the magnetic monopole not as a wave but as a wholesome particle comparable to a electron or proton. That is not justified. For what holds the electron to the proton in hydrogen by the Coulomb force is that the photon is not a particle but is rather the closed loop wave or wire for which the electron travels around the proton. So, the inverse of particle is wave.

The math analysis of Dirac is fully correct, except at the end it should be simply a reverse or inverse, or inversion of the answer for particle of 137/2(e) is wrong and the answer should be 2/137(e).

That helps tremendously, for then a neutrino wave interacting with a photon wave and exchanging energy of 2/137(e) would be occurring in large numbers and be not noticed because the interactions of 1(e) of proton and electron drown out the 2/137(e).

AP



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