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Re: area question
Posted:
Dec 15, 1997 12:50 PM


On Mon, 15 Dec 1997, Nimish Shah asked:
> > [Q] Why does the *area* (which is 2 dimensional) of a velocitytime graph > equal the length (which is 1 dimensional) of distance travelled by the > body? > Think of it this way : The units on velocity are (for example) miles per hour and the units on time are hours.
If you multiply MPH X H you get miles.
You can see this when you consider the Riemann Sum.
Herb Kasube Department of Mathematics Bradley University Peoria, IL 61625 hkasube@bradley.bradley.edu



