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Topic: area question
Replies: 1   Last Post: Dec 15, 1997 12:50 PM

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Herbert Kasube

Posts: 50
Registered: 12/3/04
Re: area question
Posted: Dec 15, 1997 12:50 PM
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On Mon, 15 Dec 1997, Nimish Shah asked:

> [Q] Why does the *area* (which is 2 dimensional) of a velocity-time graph
> equal the length (which is 1 dimensional) of distance travelled by the
> body?

Think of it this way : The units on velocity are (for example) miles per
hour and the units on time are hours.

If you multiply MPH X H you get miles.

You can see this when you consider the Riemann Sum.

Herb Kasube
Department of Mathematics
Bradley University
Peoria, IL 61625

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