> > [Q] Why does the *area* (which is 2 dimensional) of a velocity-time graph > equal the length (which is 1 dimensional) of distance travelled by the > body? > Think of it this way : The units on velocity are (for example) miles per hour and the units on time are hours.
If you multiply MPH X H you get miles.
You can see this when you consider the Riemann Sum.
Herb Kasube Department of Mathematics Bradley University Peoria, IL 61625 email@example.com