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Topic: Help on proof (not homework)
Replies: 6   Last Post: Mar 1, 1997 3:36 AM

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Larry Gottlob

Posts: 7
Registered: 12/7/04
Help on proof (not homework)
Posted: Feb 25, 1997 1:22 PM
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Can the following be proven? I do psychology for a living, not math, so
I'm relatively clueless.

There are two functions, f(t) and g(t), continuous and differentiable
everywhere (etc), such that

int (from t=x to t=x+k) of f(t)dt = int (from t=x to t=x+ak) of g(t)dt

over all x, where k and a are constants. In other words, the definite
integrals of the two functions are equal, but g(t) must always be
integrated over "a" times the range of f(t).

Can the following be proven?

df/dt = a*(dg/dt)

All responses will be gratefully acknowledged.



Lawrence R. Gottlob
Box 2980
Duke University Medical Center
Durham, NC 27710

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