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Arithmetic/Geometric Mean Inequality TheoremDate: 04/15/2001 at 21:54:36 From: Jeff Subject: AM-GM Inequality Theorem Can you give a proof of the AM-GM (arithmetic mean - geometric mean) inequality theorem? That is, prove that: (x1 + x2 + x3 + ... + xn)/n >= (x1 * x2 * x3 * ... * xn)^(1/n) for any n nonnegative integers x1, x2, x3, ..., xn. This theorem has come up a lot in problems I've studied recently, and I've searched for a proof but have been unsuccessful. Thanks, - Jeff
Date: 04/16/2001 at 07:02:36
From: Doctor Floor
Subject: Re: AM-GM Inequality Theorem
Hi, Jeff,
Thanks for writing.
Let functions f and g from R_{+0}^n to R (where R_{+0} represents the
nonnegative real numbers, and R the real numbers) be given by:
f(X) = f(x1, x2, ..., xn) = x1 * x2 * ... * xn
and
g(X) = g(x1, x2, ..., xn) = x1 + x2 + ... + xn - n
We assume g(X) = 0, and with that condition we look for a value
A = (a1, a2, ..., an) in such a way that f(A) is a maximum.
Of course for all j, Aj <> 0.
We can apply the Lagrange Multiplier theorem, which tells us here that
the vectors
( part(dg/dx1) , ... , part(dg/dxn) ) = (1,1,...,1)
and
( part(df/dx1) , ... , part(df/dxn) ) = (f(A)/a1, ..., f(A)/an)
are linearly dependent, from which we see that:
1/a1 = 1/a2 = ... = 1/an
and thus
a1 = a2 = ... = an
Since we assumed that g(X) = 0 and thus g(A) = 0, we see that
a1 = a2 = ... = an = 1
so that consequently
a1 * a2 * ... * an = 1
We conclude that in general if x1 + x2 + ... + xn = n, then
x1 * x2 * ... * xn <= 1, because we had taken A to be a maximum.
Now if:
x1 + x2 + ... + xn = S
and thus
(n/S)x1 + (n/S)x2 + ... + (n/S)xn = n
we conclude that
(n/S)^n * x1 * x2 * ... * xn <= 1
x1 * x2 * ... * xn <= (S/n)^n
(x1 * x2 * ... * xn)^(1/n) <= S/n
as desired.
For some explanation of Lagrange Multipliers, you might visit the Dr.
Math archives:
Lagrange Multipliers
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/problems/aleja1.8.98.html
If you have more questions, write us back.
Best regards,
- Doctor Floor, The Math Forum
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/
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