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Proving De Moivre's Theorem
Date: 12/03/97 at 08:42:19
From: Chris Pountney
Subject: De Moivre's theorem
Dear Dr. Math,
Please can you show me how to prove De Moivres theorem :
(cos(x)+isin(x))^n = cos(nx) + isin(nx)
Thank you,
Chris
Date: 12/08/97 at 10:34:38
From: Doctor Bruce
Subject: Re: De Moivres theorem
Hello Chris,
I'm assuming that your 'n' is meant to represent an integer.
DeMoivre's Theorem is true even if n is a complex number (has a real
part and possibly an imaginary part), but when n is an integer we
can prove the formula easily by using some basic trigonometry.
We will prove DeMoivre's Theorem for any positive integer n by
induction.
First, the theorem is clearly true for n = 1, since then both sides
of the equation are the same quantity. So now we will assume that the
theorem has been shown true for n = k. We want to show that it is
true for n = k + 1.
We calculate:
[cos(x) + i sin(x)]^(k+1) =
[cos(x) + i sin(x)]^k * [cos(x) + i sin(x)] (split up factors)
= [cos(kx) + i sin(kx)] * [cos(x) + i sin(x)]
(induction hypothesis)
= cos(kx)cos(x) - sin(kx)sin(x) + i[sin(kx)cos(x) +
cos(kx)sin(x)] (multiply out)
= cos(kx + x) + i sin(kx + x) (use trig formulas)
= cos((k+1)x) + i sin((k+1)x).
(add the angles)
This proves the inductive step, so DeMoivre's Theorem has been shown
to be true for all positive integers n.
To show the theorem is also true for negative integers, we just
compute (still assuming that n itself is positive)
[cos(x) + i sin(x)]^(-n) = [{cos(x) + i sin(x)}^(-1)]^n
= [cos(x) - i sin(x)]^n
= [cos(-x) + i sin(-x)]^n
= cos(-nx) + i sin(-nx).
So DeMoivre's Theorem is true for all integers, positive and negative.
I don't know if you know this already, but both the sine and cosine
functions can be expressed in terms of the exponential function.
Namely,
cos(x) = [e^(ix) + e^(-ix)]/2
sin(x) = [e^(ix) - e^(-ix)]/2i,
from which we get
e^(ix) = cos(x) + i sin(x).
This is true for any complex number x. This is the usual way we state
DeMoivre's formula. We see that
[cos(x) + i sin(x)]^n = [e^(ix)]^n and
cos(nx) + i sin(nx) = e^(inx),
and the two righthand sides above are clearly equal. So this an easier
way of proving the theorem that you stated, although first you have to
know about the exponential function.
A fundamental and truly amazing fact that comes out of this is
e^(i*pi) = -1,
which you get by substituting x = pi in DeMoivre's formula.
-Doctor Bruce, The Math Forum
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