Date: 8/4/96 at 16:1:48 From: Jeffrey Paul Goins Subject: Power 0 Dear Dr. Math, Why is any number to the 0 power equal to one? Thank you! Levi Goins
Date: 8/5/96 at 11:29:51 From: Doctor Anthony Subject: Re: Power 0 The rules of algebra are designed to be consistent as far as this is possible. Why is anything to power 0 equal to 1? Consider first a^5/a^3 As you know this is the same as (a*a*a*a*a)/(a*a*a) = a^2 So to get the result we subtracted the powers to give 5-3 = 2 What about (a*a*a)/(a*a*a) = a^(3-3) = a^0 But we know that a^3/a^3 = 1, and so a^0 = 1 This does not depend on a, and is true in the general case. -Doctor Anthony, The Math Forum Check out our web site! http://mathforum.org/dr.math/
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