Date: 05/01/2002 at 21:46:12 From: Carl Segor Subject: Rearranging x=tan()sin() How would I approach rearranging: x = tan(y)*sin(y) into y = some function of x
Date: 05/01/2002 at 23:20:01 From: Doctor Jubal Subject: Re: Rearranging x=tan()sin() Hi Carl, Thanks for writing to Dr. Math. An intermediate goal here is going to be to be able to write something of the sort trig(y) = f(x) and then taking the inverse trig function of both sides will give us an answer. So we need to get everything in terms of the same trig function. The tangent is defined in terms of sines and cosines, so we could begin by writing x = [sin(y) / cos(y)] * sin(y) x = sin^2(y) / cos(y) Now at this point, we need to get everything in terms of all sines or all cosines. I think the easiest way to proceed is to use the Pythagorean identity: sin^2(y) + cos^2(y) = 1 to get everything in terms of cosines. Since sin^2(y) = 1 - cos^2(y), we can now write x = [1 - cos^2(y)] / cos(y) This gets us to our goal of having everything in terms of one trig function, but not to the goal of having something like trig(y) = f(x). But notice we can rearrange this to cos(y) * x = 1 - cos^2(y) cos^2(y) + x cos(y) - 1 = 0 Which is a quadratic function of cos(y). So now, you could use the quadratic formula to solve for cos(y), and then taking the arccos of both sides will give you your answer. Does this help? Write back if you'd like to talk about this some more, or if you have any other questions. - Doctor Jubal, The Math Forum http://mathforum.org/dr.math/
Date: 05/02/2002 at 11:43:08 From: Carl Segor Subject: Rearranging x=tan()sin() Dr. Jubal, Thanks for the insight. The conclusion is near! Regards, Carl
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