Independence of Mean and Variance of a SampleDate: 12/14/2008 at 10:01:58 From: Tess Subject: Independence of x(bar) and s^2 of a sample I came across a very interesting fact in statistical theory that I can't understand. If a random sample is taken from a normal distribution, the mean and variance of that sample are independent! The other very interesting fact that is even more logic-defying to me is that this independence is only true for normal distributions. How can they be independent when they are from the same sample values? Is there an easy way to understand a method of showing these to be true? Date: 12/16/2008 at 08:54:10 From: Doctor George Subject: Re: Independence of x(bar) and s^2 of a sample Hi Tess, Thanks for writing to Doctor Math. Proving the independence of xbar and s^2 for the normal distribution is an advanced topic. You would probably need to consult an advanced undergraduate level text for a full proof. But here is an intuitive look at it. What question does xbar answer? It tells us something about where the distribution is centered. What question does s^2 answer? It tells us something about the spread of the distribution. These are two different concepts, and each is separately and completely connected to one of the two parameters of the distribution. So finding that the estimators are independent should not be a huge surprise. As for other distributions, their first two moments are not associated with separate parameters in the way that mu and sigma are for the normal distribution. Since the moments are more complicated functions of the parameters, the estimates of the moments end up having some kind of dependency. These comments fall well short of any kind of proof, but hopefully they give you some insight. Write again if you need more help. - Doctor George, The Math Forum http://mathforum.org/dr.math/ |
Search the Dr. Math Library: |
[Privacy Policy] [Terms of Use]
Ask Dr. Math^{TM}
© 1994-2015 The Math Forum
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/