| Discussion: | All Topics |
| Topic: | Is a rhombus a kite? |
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| Subject: | RE: Is a rhombus a kite? |
| Author: | Mathman |
| Date: | Jun 8 2005 |
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> On May 20 2005, Mathman wrote:
> Strictly speaking however, the integers are not a subset of the
> rationals - though they do map one-to-one onto such a subset. A
> rational number is the set of all equivalent pairs of integers (with
> equivalence defined as (a,b) equ. (c, d) iff. ad = bc)
I vowed to stay out of any further discussions in these conferences due to an
unduly critical email, but feel I should reply this once. Talking about
equivalence, "(a,b) equ. (c, d) iff. ad = bc)" is about as close as you can get
to saying that "a/b = c/d IFF ad = bc". With that in mind, 2/1 = 6/3 IFF 2x3 =
1x6.
Now, I'll set back and enjoy the dialogue from other, more learned colleagues.
I've never really studied number theory to any extent, but used fractions only
for the strength of the analogy in reference to the discussion.
David.
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